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Premier League powerhouses Manchester United and Arsenal are reportedly vying for the signature of Fenerbahce’s Sebastian Szymanski, with Tottenham and AC Milan also keeping tabs on the midfielder, as per Fichajes.
Since his loan move to Fenerbahce from Feyenoord last season, the 24-year-old has been in stellar form, contributing to 26 goals in 39 games with 12 goals and 14 assists.
The interest from the English trio has led them to dispatch scouts to observe Szymanski’s performances, who has caught their eye with his potential.
Arsenal’s Mikel Arteta is on the lookout for a versatile midfielder to offer backup to Martin Ødegaard, particularly someone who can operate in the central or right midfield positions.
Manchester United, under new ownership, is keen on investing in young talent with the promise for the future, and Szymanski fits this profile, potentially providing the attacking depth they seek.
Despite the desire to retain his services beyond the summer of 2024, as his contract extends to 2027, Fenerbahce might be persuaded with an offer around €35 million, despite his market value being pegged at €22.5 million.
Szymanski’s exceptional form has not only put him in the spotlight but has also led to speculation about his future, especially with Fenerbahce’s aspirations to keep him amidst their domestic and European commitments.
The unfolding scenario presents a significant intrigue regarding Szymanski’s next move, with the mentioned clubs poised for a potential transfer tussle.
